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The Truth About ...    THE ASSUMPTION OF MARY

What does this mean? Dr. Rumble, a Roman Catholic scholar tells us:ÖÖ"After the Blessed Virgin Mary died, her body was not allowed to corrupt as is the case with others. This was prevented by the resurrection of her body before corruption set in. Reunited with her soul, her body was spiritualised and glorified: at once being assumed into heaven. Again, death and corruption are penalties of original sin. But Mary, by her immaculate conception preserved her from all taint of original sin...though innocent, she died in union with her innocent son. She shared in the whole work of redemption." Radio Replies Vol. 1. Quest. 635 and 636.


Although this omission is freely admitted by Roman Catholics, it is still taught by them, claiming authenticity from traditions approved by that church. Despite the fact that the Bible says, "To the Law and the testimony, if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them." (Isaiah 8:20), they persist that their church has the authority to impose this doctrine. Yet Jesus clearly indicates that Godís revelation to man ceased with the last words of the Book of Revelation. "I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, if any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book." (Revelations 22:18)


One would also think that John would have had ample opportunity to have written concerning this phenomenal event if it occurred at all. This is especially so, seeing R.C. tradition asserts that John cared for Mary until her death at Ephesus where he was Bishop until his own death between 95 and 100 A. D. Again - John was co- witness of the resurrection of Jesus with the other apostles. Seeing he recorded Christís death and resurrection, why not Maryís death and resurrection, particularly in view of the R.C. assertion that she shares with her son in the whole work of redemption? Yet Instead of any record from John, the longest living disciple, there is a deafening dead silence. Mary is still silently awaiting resurrection.


The Bible says Christ is the firstfruits from the dead, and that those that are Christís will be raised at his coming. This includes Mary together with all the other saints who sleep in Jesus. "For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christís at his coming." (1 Corinthians 15:22-23)

This is the divinely given order from which no exception is given. Another Scripture says "For (there is) one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus." (1Timothy 2:5) There is no other mediator either on earth or in heaven. Jesus is our only mediator. This next Scripture was written well after the alleged ascension of Mary:- "If any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous" (1 John 2: 1) Obviously John who wrote those words somewhere around 90 A. D. long after Maryís death, did not know of her other alleged function as co-advocate with Jesus.


The prophecy of Simeon that a sword would pierce the soul of Mary also (Luke 2:35) is used to claim she shared all his suffering role and so, was implicated in the full work of redemption. But as we have seen there is only one mediator, Christ Jesus.

So another explanation is essential. A sword pierced her soul to see her son die a cruel premature death. She had come with him from Galilee with the other women to keep the passover. An examination of Luke 23:55 to Luke 24:9, reveals that along with all the other women from Galilee, she did not even understand that he would rise from the dead. They were all perplexed concerning the empty tomb. Yet belief in Christís resurrection is essential for the forgiveness of sins. "And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins." (1 Corinthians 15:17) So it is clear that she could not have participated in that which she understood not.


If Mary was excepted from "original sin," and through that exemption maintained eternal innocence, why was a sin offering required following the birth of her son? This offering from which she was not exempted, was according to the law of God. (Luke 2:24) (Leviticus 12:8). The Bible is clear that "there is no difference: for all have sinned and come short of the glory of God" (Romans 3:23)

Mary was therefore as much in need of the atoning work of her son as we are. She did not understand the necessity for his total dedication to his work, for she sent messengers on one occasion to distract him from it. They urged that his mother and brethren were there and were seeking him. Christís answer was, "For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother." (Matthew 12:50) He gently rebuked her, showing that she had underrated Godís high calling in her son. Mary obviously had not totally dedicated herself to co-work with him.


Dr. Rumble also claims that "death and corruption are penalties of original sin," Not only does this teach that we inherit Adamís guilt, but also the penalty for that sin. So Mary was alleged to have been immaculately conceived to avoid both the guilt and penalty of Adamís sin.

But the Bible knows nothing of this doctrine. Romans 5:12-14 teaches us that we inherit Adamís physical nature, that consequent to his sin, brings death with it. But it says nothing about the death we thus inherit being a transferred penalty. Our personal condemnation is entirely our own fault, not Adamís. (Ezekiel 18:20) No one including Mary could escape from the grave by their own personal virtues, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. (Romans 3:23)

So we can be sure that she along with all other sinners, shared to the full the corruption that comes to Adamís descendants THROUGH the inheritance of his Adamic nature. The Bible teaches that Jesus is the only one who, though fully sharing our adamic nature, (Heb 2:14) did not see corruption (Acts 2:27 Psa 16:10).

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